Classic Casino VS Texas Hold'em

[TipAGambler]

Hello everyone,
I have been promoting casinos for the past few years, mainly focusing on slots, roulette, blackjack, etc..

Recently I have been contacted by a friend who has a unique way to attract poker players and is interested in cooperating with me.

Anyway, I know how the revenue share deal works, but in Texas Hold'em I need some clarification.

let's assume I have a 35% revenue share deal
The casino takes a 5% rake of each hand.

If my player made a $1000 deposit and lost it all.
The total revenue is $50?

Meaning my revenue is 35% of that $50(minus other fees) ?

I mean, my player lost to another player. Not to the casino.
The only thing the casino earned was the rake? Am I right?

Please, help me make sense of this.

Thanks in advance

 

[DaftDog]

I'm not a poker affiliate but I understood it to be as follows, things may have changed:

You would get a percentage of the rake, so if your player is a really good player and generates a lot of "rake" for the poker room you would get a percentage of that, less fees. Your player could deposit $10 and go on to build it up $10,000 over 2000 hands, then lose it all in one hand. You would earn your percentage of each rake the player generated for the house per winning hand.

 

[TipAGambler]

Ok, that makes sense.
Thanks a lot for your answer!

 

[CuriousCoders]

Correct yes, for poker the revenue driven is a function of the amount the player raked. Not what they lost to other players.